IAS Prelims Question 2011

 IAS Prelims Question 2011

26-  India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation /explanations? 

(a) As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times 

(b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, Brahmin priests and Buddhist monks in this context 

(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages 

(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this context

Ans-

The most convincing explanation for India's pre-eminence in early maritime history across the Bay of Bengal is:


(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this context


Explanation:


(a) As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times: India had a long tradition of ship-building expertise and advanced maritime technology in ancient and medieval periods. Indian shipbuilders constructed sturdy and efficient sailing vessels, including large wooden ships known as dhows and outrigger boats, which were well-suited for maritime trade and sea voyages. This technological advantage allowed Indian traders to navigate the waters of the Bay of Bengal and beyond, establishing strong maritime connections with Southeast Asian countries.


(b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, Brahmin priests, and Buddhist monks in this context: The rulers of southern India, particularly during the Chola, Pallava, and Chera dynasties, were known for their patronage of trade and maritime activities. They encouraged and supported traders, merchants, Brahmin priests, and Buddhist monks who played a crucial role in fostering cultural and trade connections between India and Southeast Asia. These rulers promoted maritime trade, which contributed to the growth of economic and cultural ties across the Bay of Bengal.


(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages: While monsoon winds were essential for maritime trade and sea voyages, this factor alone does not explain India's pre-eminence in early maritime history. Monsoon winds influenced the timing and direction of voyages, enabling safe and predictable sea routes across the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean. Indian traders skillfully utilized these monsoon winds to facilitate their sea voyages to Southeast Asia and beyond.


In summary, both technological expertise in ship-building (option a) and the patronage of rulers towards trade and maritime activities (option b) were critical factors that contributed to India's early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. The presence of favorable monsoon winds (option c) further supported and facilitated these maritime connections. Therefore, option (d) is the most convincing explanation in this context.


27-  What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?

(a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band

(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only

(c) When information is transmitted between two devices using Bluetooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other

(d) The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context

Ans-


(d) The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context


Explanation:


(a) Bluetooth uses the 2.4 GHz radio frequency band: Bluetooth operates in the 2.4 GHz ISM band for wireless communication between devices. This frequency band is available for use without the need for a license and is commonly used for various wireless technologies.


Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band: Wi-Fi is a wireless networking technology that can operate in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands. Dual-band Wi-Fi routers allow devices to connect using either the 2.4 GHz band or the faster 5 GHz band, providing more flexibility and less interference in areas with high wireless traffic.


(b) Bluetooth is not used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only: Bluetooth is primarily designed for short-range communication between devices, often referred to as Personal Area Networks (PANs). It is used for connecting devices like smartphones, headphones, and other peripherals. Wi-Fi, on the other hand, is commonly used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs) that provide broader coverage for connecting multiple devices within a specific area.


(c) The statement regarding line of sight is not accurate for both Bluetooth and Wi-Fi: Neither Bluetooth nor Wi-Fi requires devices to be in the line of sight for communication. Both technologies are designed to work effectively even when devices are not directly visible to each other, as they use radio waves that can penetrate walls and obstacles.


Therefore, the correct answer is (d) The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context.


28- With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced. 

2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming. 3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) 1 only 

(b)2 and 3 only 

(c)1 and 3 only 

(d)1, 2 and 3

Ans- 


(a) 1 only


Explanation:


1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced: Micro-irrigation systems like drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation deliver water and nutrients directly to the root zone of plants in a controlled manner. This targeted application of water and nutrients reduces wastage and loss, leading to more efficient nutrient utilization by the plants.


2. It is not the only means of irrigation in dryland farming: Dryland farming refers to agricultural practices in regions with limited rainfall, where water conservation and efficient irrigation techniques are crucial. While micro-irrigation systems can be beneficial in dryland farming, they are not the only means of irrigation used in such areas. Traditional methods like rainwater harvesting, check dams, and water-efficient crop choices are also commonly employed in dryland farming.


3. In some areas of farming, receding of the groundwater table can be checked: Micro-irrigation systems, particularly drip irrigation, can help manage water usage more efficiently, which can contribute to water conservation and possibly mitigate the excessive depletion of groundwater in certain farming areas. By providing water directly to the roots, there is less wastage through evaporation and run-off, which can help control the decline of the groundwater table.


Since option 2 is not correct, the correct answer is (a) 1 only. Thank you for bringing this to my attention.

29- With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”? 

1. Funds used to support the India Office in London. 

2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India. 

3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 1 and 2 only 

(c) 2 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans-

The correct answer is:


(d) 1, 2, and 3


Explanation:


"Home Charges" referred to the various expenses incurred by the British government in administering and maintaining its colonial rule in India. These expenses constituted a significant part of the drain of wealth from India during the colonial period. The funds that constituted "Home Charges" included:


1. Funds used to support the India Office in London: The India Office was the administrative center in London responsible for overseeing the governance and policies of British India. The expenses related to maintaining the India Office and its personnel were included in the "Home Charges."


2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India: The salaries and pensions of British civil servants, military personnel, and other officials serving in India were covered under "Home Charges." These expenses were borne by the Indian treasury and led to a significant outflow of wealth from India to Britain.


3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British: The costs of British military campaigns and wars fought outside India, which were often financed using Indian revenues, were also considered part of the "Home Charges." These expenses further contributed to the drain of wealth from India.


In summary, all three options (1, 2, and 3) were part of the "Home Charges" and constituted an important aspect of the economic exploitation and drain of wealth from India during the colonial rule. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2, and 3.


30- What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda? 

1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought 

2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.

The reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda was:


1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.


Explanation:


In 1918, Kheda district in Gujarat faced a severe drought and crop failure, leaving the farmers in dire economic conditions. The British colonial administration, however, insisted on collecting the full land revenue from the farmers, even though they were unable to pay due to the crop failure.


Mahatma Gandhi, along with other leaders, organized a satyagraha (nonviolent resistance) campaign to protest against the unjust demand for land revenue collection during the drought. The peasants and farmers in Kheda joined the movement, and they refused to pay the revenue.


Through the satyagraha, Gandhi demanded that the administration suspend the land revenue collection until the situation improved and the farmers could recover from the devastating drought. The satyagraha was a form of peaceful civil disobedience, highlighting the plight of the peasants and their demands for fair treatment during challenging times.


Option (a) is correct: The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.


Option (b) is not correct: The Administration's proposal to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat was not the reason for Gandhi's satyagraha in Kheda.


Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

31-  Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity? 

(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency 

(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy 

(c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism 

(d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process

Ans-

The correct answer is:


(c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism


Explanation:


Antioxidants are substances that can neutralize free radicals in the body. Free radicals are highly reactive molecules that are produced during normal cellular metabolism or when the body is exposed to factors like pollution, radiation, or stress. These free radicals can damage cells and their components, including DNA, proteins, and lipids, leading to oxidative stress.


Oxidative stress is associated with various health problems and is believed to contribute to the aging process and the development of chronic diseases such as cardiovascular diseases, cancer, and neurodegenerative disorders.


Antioxidants work by donating electrons to the free radicals, thus stabilizing them and preventing them from causing further damage to cells. By neutralizing free radicals, antioxidants help protect the body's cells from oxidative damage, maintain overall health, and may contribute to promoting longevity by reducing the risk of age-related diseases.


Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended because they are rich sources of various antioxidants, such as vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and other phytochemicals. Including these antioxidant-rich foods in the diet can help maintain health and reduce the harmful effects of oxidative stress on the body. Option (c) correctly describes the role of antioxidants in neutralizing free radicals, thereby promoting health and potentially extending longevity.


32- Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements: 

1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene. 

2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- 

The correct answer is:


(c) Both 1 and 2


Explanation:


1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene: The Indus Valley Civilization, also known as the Harappan Civilization, is believed to have been predominantly a secular civilization. The archaeological evidence suggests that there was a well-planned urban society with advanced city planning, standardized weights and measures, and efficient drainage systems. While some religious artifacts and symbols have been found at Harappan sites, there is no evidence of dominant religious structures like temples or large religious edifices. This has led scholars to believe that the civilization had a more secular outlook, with religion playing a relatively minor role in shaping the society.


2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India: The Indus Valley Civilization was known for its advanced technological achievements, including advancements in textile production. Archaeological excavations at Harappan sites, such as Mohenjo-daro and Harappa, have revealed evidence of cotton cultivation and the production of cotton textiles. Cotton fabrics and fragments of cotton cloth have been found at these sites, indicating that the Harappans were skilled in spinning and weaving cotton fibers into textiles.


Therefore, both statements (1 and 2) are correct. The Indus Valley Civilization had a predominantly secular outlook with religion playing a minor role, and cotton was indeed used for manufacturing textiles during this period. The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

33- The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region? 

(a) Paddy and cotton 

(b) Wheat and Jute 

(c) Paddy and Jute 

(d) Wheat and cotton

Ans- The most suitable pair of crops for the lower Gangetic plain with its humid climate and high temperature throughout the year is:


(c) Paddy and Jute


Explanation:


1. Paddy (rice) is a staple crop that requires a warm and humid climate, making it well-suited for the lower Gangetic plain. The region's high temperature and abundant rainfall provide the necessary conditions for paddy cultivation.


2. Jute is another crop well-adapted to the climate of the lower Gangetic plain. Jute is a tropical crop that thrives in warm and humid conditions with well-distributed rainfall. The fertile alluvial soil of the region is particularly suitable for jute cultivation.


Option (a) (Paddy and cotton) and option (d) (Wheat and cotton) are not the best choices for the lower Gangetic plain due to the prevailing humid climate. While cotton is generally grown in drier regions, wheat is better suited to areas with a relatively cooler climate.


Option (b) (Wheat and Jute) is also not the best option, as wheat is a crop that requires a cooler and temperate climate, unlike the hot and humid conditions of the lower Gangetic plain.


Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Paddy and Jute, as these crops are most suitable for the lower Gangetic plain with its humid climate and high temperature throughout the year.

34-  What could be the main reason/reasons of the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt? 

1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells. 

2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans-

The correct answer is:


(a) 1 only


Explanation:


The main reason for the formation of the African and Eurasian desert belt is statement 1:


1. It is located in the sub-tropical high-pressure cells: The African and Eurasian desert belt, which includes the Sahara Desert in Africa and the deserts of the Middle East and Central Asia, is located in the sub-tropical regions. These regions experience a prevailing pattern of high atmospheric pressure known as the sub-tropical high-pressure cells or subtropical high.


Subtropical high-pressure cells are characterized by sinking air and stable atmospheric conditions. As the air descends, it warms and becomes dry, leading to reduced cloud formation and minimal precipitation. This results in arid and desert-like conditions in these regions.


Statement 2 (It is under the influence of warm ocean currents) is not correct as warm ocean currents generally bring moisture and contribute to more humid conditions rather than desertification.


Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1 only. The formation of the African and Eurasian desert belt is mainly due to the location in the sub-tropical high-pressure cells, leading to dry and arid conditions.

35- The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation? 

1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere. 

2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- 


(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Explanation:


1. There are no clouds or water vapor in the lower stratosphere: This statement is not correct. While it is true that the stratosphere generally has a very low concentration of water vapor, it is not entirely devoid of it. Water vapor can still exist in trace amounts in the stratosphere, although its concentration is much lower compared to the troposphere.


2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere: This statement is also not entirely correct. While the stratosphere is more stable than the troposphere below it, it is not completely devoid of vertical motion. Vertical winds can still occur in the stratosphere, although they are generally weaker and less turbulent compared to those in the troposphere.


Due to the presence of some water vapor and the possibility of weak vertical winds, the lower stratosphere is not entirely free of these factors. As a result, jet aircraft flying in the stratosphere still experience some level of turbulence and weather-related effects, though it is generally less compared to the troposphere.


Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.


36- Consider the following statements: 

1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes. 

2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans-  The correct answer is:


(c) Both 1 and 2


Explanation:


1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes: This statement is correct. The distribution of biodiversity on Earth follows a pattern known as the latitudinal biodiversity gradient. Generally, biodiversity is higher in tropical regions near the equator and decreases as one moves towards the higher latitudes, closer to the poles. The tropics, characterized by warm and stable climates, support a wide range of ecosystems and provide ideal conditions for various species to thrive. In contrast, higher latitudes have harsher climates and shorter growing seasons, limiting the diversity of species.


2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes: This statement is also correct. The distribution of biodiversity along the altitudinal gradient of mountains follows a similar pattern to the latitudinal gradient. Biodiversity is typically higher at lower altitudes and decreases as one ascends to higher altitudes. At lower elevations, the climate is more favorable, with milder temperatures and higher moisture levels, supporting diverse habitats and species. As one moves higher up a mountain, the climate becomes colder and harsher, limiting the range of species that can survive in such extreme conditions.


In summary, both statements (1 and 2) are correct. Biodiversity is typically greater in the lower latitudes and lower altitudes, where more favorable climatic conditions and ecological factors support a wider range of species and ecosystems. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

38- The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to 

(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series 

(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas 

(c) Geo-Tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains 

(d) Both (a) and (b) above


Ans- 


(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas


Explanation:


The "U" turn made by the Brahmaputra River in its course to flow into India is primarily due to the syntaxial bending of the geologically young Himalayas.


Syntaxial bending refers to the structural bend or curve in the mountain ranges formed by the tectonic forces during the mountain-building process. As the Brahmaputra River enters the eastern Himalayas, it encounters this syntaxial bending, which causes the river to change its course and take a "U" turn.


The uplift of folded Himalayan series (option a) is indeed a significant geological process in the region, but it is not the main reason for the "U" turn made by the Brahmaputra River. The syntaxial bending of the geologically young Himalayas is the primary factor influencing the river's course in this region.


Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas.


38- A state in India has the following characteristics: 1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid. 2. Its central part produces cotton. 3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops. Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics? 

(a) Andhra Pradesh 

(b) Gujarat 

(c) Karnataka 

(d) Tamil Nadu


Ans- 

The correct answer is:


(b) Gujarat


Explanation:


Gujarat is the state in India that has all of the mentioned characteristics:


1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid: The northern part of Gujarat is characterized by arid and semi-arid regions, which receive limited rainfall and have a dry climate.


2. Its central part produces cotton: Gujarat is one of the major cotton-producing states in India, and its central region is known for cotton cultivation.


3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops: Gujarat's agriculture is known for its emphasis on cash crops like cotton, groundnuts, oilseeds, and spices. Cash crops are given more prominence and are commercially significant in the state's agricultural practices.


Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Gujarat, as it has all of the mentioned characteristics.


39- What is “Virtual Private Network”? 

(a) It is a private compute network of an organization where he remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization. 

(b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization’s network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted. 

(c) It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider 

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is a correct description of Virtual Private Network


Ans- The correct answer is:


(b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization's network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted.


Explanation:


A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a technology that allows users to establish a secure and encrypted connection to a private network over a public internet or another public network. It provides a secure way for remote users to access their organization's network and resources as if they were directly connected to the private network.


Option (a) is not a correct description of a Virtual Private Network. While it mentions a private computer network of an organization, it does not mention the use of a public internet or the key aspect of VPN, which is providing secure access over a public network.


Option (c) is not a correct description of a Virtual Private Network. It describes a shared pool of computing resources accessible through a service provider, which is a different concept than VPN.


Option (d) states that none of the statements (a), (b), and (c) is a correct description of a Virtual Private Network, but in reality, option (b) is the correct description of VPN.


Therefore, the correct answer is (b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization's network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted.


40- The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this context, consider the following statements: 

1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to others. 

2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Ans-  The correct answer is:


(c) Both 1 and 2


Explanation:


1. Dharma: In ancient Vedic civilization of India, "dharma" refers to the concept of moral and ethical duties, righteousness, and obligations. It encompasses the individual's responsibilities and duties towards oneself, others, society, and the universe. Dharma guides individuals to lead a virtuous and ethical life, fulfilling their obligations and upholding the moral order in society.


2. Rita: In ancient Vedic civilization, "rita" represents the fundamental cosmic order or moral law governing the functioning of the universe and everything within it. It is the cosmic principle that maintains harmony, balance, and order in the natural and divine realms. Rita is an underlying cosmic principle that ensures the proper functioning of the universe and upholds the stability and balance of the cosmos.


Both "dharma" and "rita" are central concepts in ancient Vedic civilization. While "dharma" pertains more to individual duties and obligations, "rita" is the broader cosmic principle governing the universe. Together, they form the core values and ethical foundation of the Vedic culture.


Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.


41- (Union Budget)


42- Consider the following: 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Oxides of Nitrogen 3. Oxides of Sulphur 

Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Ans- 

The correct answer is:


(d) 1, 2 and 3


Explanation:


All of the options (1, 2, and 3) are emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants.


1. Carbon dioxide (CO2): Carbon dioxide is one of the primary greenhouse gases emitted during the combustion of coal and other fossil fuels. It is a major contributor to global warming and climate change.


2. Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx): Nitrogen oxides are formed when nitrogen in the air reacts with oxygen at high temperatures during the combustion process. NOx emissions from power plants contribute to air pollution, smog formation, and respiratory issues.


3. Oxides of Sulphur (SOx): Sulphur oxides are produced when coal containing sulphur is burned, releasing sulphur dioxide (SO2) and other sulphur compounds. SOx emissions are a significant cause of acid rain and can harm the environment and human health.


Coal combustion in thermal power plants is a significant source of these emissions, and efforts are made to reduce their impact on the environment through various pollution control measures and the adoption of cleaner technologies.


43- Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when: 

1. The orbit is geosynchronous.

 2. The orbit is circular. 3

. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator. 

4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 

(c) 2 and 4 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans - 

The correct answer is indeed:


(a) 1, 2, and 3 only


Explanation:


To be in a geostationary orbit, a satellite must fulfill the following conditions:


1. The orbit is geosynchronous: A geostationary satellite completes one orbit around the Earth in the same time it takes the Earth to rotate once on its axis. As a result, the satellite appears to remain stationary in the sky relative to a fixed point on the Earth's surface. This condition is known as geosynchronous.


2. The orbit is circular: A geostationary satellite is placed in a circular orbit around the Earth, which helps to maintain a fixed position above the same point on the Earth's surface.


3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth's equator: A geostationary satellite's orbit is positioned directly above the Earth's equator, with an inclination of 0 degrees.


Condition 4 (The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km) is not necessarily true for all geostationary satellites, as the altitude can vary slightly depending on the specific satellite and its mission. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1, 2, and 3 only.




44-


45- 


46- In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX common Wealth Games in India amounted to 

(a) Export 

(b) Import 

(c) Production 

(d) Consumption


Ans- 


The correct answer is indeed:


(a) Export


Explanation:


When foreign nationals visit a country to attend events like the Commonwealth Games, their spending on various goods and services contributes to the host country's economy. The money spent by foreign visitors becomes a part of the host country's income and is considered an export of services in economic terms.


In the context of the Commonwealth Games in India, the spending by foreign nationals who visited the country to witness the games would be considered an export of services for India's economy.


47- Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why? 

1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates. 

2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates. 3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans- 


The correct answer is indeed:


(d) 1, 2, and 3


Explanation:


Microbial fuel cells (MFCs) are considered a source of sustainable energy for the following reasons:


1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates: Microbial fuel cells employ microorganisms (bacteria) as catalysts to facilitate the conversion of organic matter, such as wastewater, into electricity. These microorganisms act as electrogenic bacteria, meaning they can produce electrons during their metabolic processes. The transfer of electrons from the microorganisms to an electrode in the MFC generates an electric current.


2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates: MFCs can utilize a wide range of organic and inorganic materials as substrates. While organic matter is more commonly used, some MFC designs can also utilize certain inorganic materials as substrates for electricity generation.


3. They can be installed in wastewater treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity: Microbial fuel cells can be integrated into wastewater treatment systems as a part of the treatment process. As the microorganisms in the MFC consume organic matter in the wastewater, they not only produce electricity but also help in breaking down and cleansing the water. This makes MFCs an environmentally friendly technology, as they can contribute to both wastewater treatment and electricity generation simultaneously.


Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2, and 3.


48-  Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”? (a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth (b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country (c) It is Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation (d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion

Ans- The correct answer is:


(b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country.


Explanation:


Fiscal stimulus refers to a set of measures taken by the government to boost economic activity during times of economic downturn or recession. The main objective of fiscal stimulus is to increase aggregate demand in the economy and stimulate economic growth.


Options (a), (c), and (d) do not accurately describe fiscal stimulus. Option (a) describes a massive investment in the manufacturing sector, which can be part of an industrial policy but may not necessarily be a fiscal stimulus. Option (c) refers to the government's action on financial institutions to promote lending in certain sectors, which is a different policy measure but not specifically a fiscal stimulus. Option (d) mentions the government's policy of financial inclusion, which is again a different policy objective unrelated to fiscal stimulus.


In contrast, option (b) correctly states that fiscal stimulus is an affirmative action taken by the government to boost economic activity in the country. This can be achieved through various measures, such as increased government spending on infrastructure projects, tax cuts, and providing financial support to businesses and households. The goal is to encourage spending, investment, and overall economic growth during challenging economic times.


49-  The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole? (a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons (b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons. (c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons. (d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming

Ans- The correct answer is:


(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.


Explanation:


The formation of the ozone hole in the Antarctic region is primarily attributed to the presence of certain atmospheric conditions and the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances.


The key factors responsible for the formation of the ozone hole are:


1. Presence of a prominent polar front: The polar front is an area of strong temperature contrast between polar air masses and warmer air masses from lower latitudes. In the Antarctic region during the winter months, the temperature becomes extremely low, leading to the formation of polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs) at high altitudes. These clouds provide surfaces for chemical reactions involving ozone-depleting substances.


2. Presence of stratospheric clouds: The polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs) play a crucial role in the breakdown of ozone-depleting substances, especially during the polar winter when sunlight is scarce. These clouds provide a surface for chemical reactions that release chlorine and bromine atoms from CFCs and halons. These chlorine and bromine atoms are highly reactive and catalytically destroy ozone molecules.


3. Inflow of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances: Human-made chemicals such as CFCs, halons, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform are released into the atmosphere. These substances are stable and can reach the stratosphere, where they are broken down by ultraviolet (UV) radiation, releasing chlorine and bromine atoms that participate in ozone-depleting reactions.


The combination of these factors leads to the formation of the ozone hole over the Antarctic region during the austral spring (September to November) when the sunlight returns and initiates the chemical reactions involving ozone-depleting substances and polar stratospheric clouds.


Option (b) correctly describes the main reasons for the formation of the ozone hole, including the presence of a prominent polar front, stratospheric clouds, and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).


50- Consider the following actions which the government can take: 1. Devaluing the domestic currency. 2. Reduction in the export subsidy. 3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs. Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3

Ans- 


(a) 1 and 2


Explanation:


Reducing the current account deficit involves improving the balance of payments by decreasing the outflow of foreign exchange through various measures. The actions that can help in reducing the current account deficit are:


1. Devaluing the domestic currency (Option 1): Devaluation of the domestic currency makes the exports cheaper for foreign buyers and imports more expensive for domestic consumers. This encourages higher exports and reduces imports, thus improving the balance of trade and narrowing the current account deficit.


2. Reduction in the export subsidy (Option 2): Export subsidies are financial incentives provided by the government to boost exports by reducing production costs or making exports more competitive. While they may promote exports, they can also lead to higher imports due to a lack of competitiveness in domestic industries. Reducing export subsidies can help in reducing the current account deficit by discouraging imports and promoting domestic production.


Option 3 (Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs) does not directly contribute to reducing the current account deficit. While FDI and FII inflows can bring in foreign capital and investment, they are recorded under the financial account of the balance of payments, not the current account.


Therefore, the correct actions that can help in reducing the current account deficit are devaluing the domestic currency (Option 1) and reducing the export subsidy (Option 2). The correct answer is (a) 1 and 2.



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